Total Pageviews

Thursday, August 22, 2013

Reading Comprehension 1

Homeostasis,an animal's maintenance of certain internal variables within an acceptable range,particularly in extreme physical environments,has long interested biologists.The desert rat and the camel in the most water-deprived environments,and marine vertebrates in an all-water environment,encounter the same regulatory problem:maintaining adequate Internal fluid balance. For desert rats and camels,the problem is conservation of water in an environment where standing water is nonexistent,temperature is high, and humidity is low.Despite these handicaps, desert rats are able to maintain the osmotic pressure of their blood,as well as their total body water content,at approximately the same levels as other rats.one countermeasure is behavioral:these rats stay in burrows during „the hot part of the day, thus avoiding loss of fluid through panting or sweating,which are regulatory mechanisms for maintaining internal body temperature by evaporative cooling. Also,desert rats‟ kidneys can excrete a urine having twice as high a salt content as sea water.
Camels,on the other hand,rely more on simple endurance.They cannot store water, and their reliance on an entirely unexceptional kidney results in a rate of water loss through renal function significantly higher than that of desert rats.As a result,camels must tolerate losses In Body water of up to thirty percent of their body weight.Nevertheless,camels do rely on a special mechanism to keep water loss within a tolerable range:by sweating and panting only when their body temperature exceeds that which would kill a human,they conserve internal water. Marine vertebrates experience difficulty with their water balance because though there is no shortage of seawater to drink, they must drink a lot of it to maintain their internal fluid balance.But the excess salts from the seawater must be discharged somehow,and the kidneys of most marine vertebrates are unable to excrete a urine in which the salts are more concentrated than in seawater.Most of these animals have special salt-secreting organs outside the kidney that enable them to eliminate excess salt.

1. Which of the following most accurately states the purpose of the passage?
(A) To compare two different approaches to the study of homeostasis
(B) To summarize the findings of several studies regarding organisms maintenance of internal variables in extreme environments
(C) To argue for a particular hypothesis regarding various organisms conservation of water in desert environments
(D) To cite examples of how homeostasis is achieved by various organisms
(E) To defend a new theory regarding the maintenance of adequate fluid balance

2. According to the passage,the camel maintains internal fluid balance in which of the following ways? I. By behavioral avoidance of exposure to conditions that lead to fluid loss
II. By an ability to tolerate high body temperatures
III. By reliance on stored internal fluid supplies

(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and II only (D) II and III only (E) I,II , and Ill

3.It can be inferred from the passage that some mechanisms that regulate internal body temperature t like sweating and panting, can lead to which of the following?
(A) A rise in the external body temperature
(B) A drop in the body's internal fluid level
(C) A decrease i n the osmotic pressure of the blood
(D) A decrease in the amount of renal water loss
(E) A decrease in the urine's salt content

4.It can be inferred from the passage that the author characterizes the camel's kidney as"entirely unexceptional"(1ine 27)primarily to emphasize that it
(A) functions much as the kidney of a rat functions
(B) does not aid the camel in coping with the exceptional water loss resulting from the extreme conditions of its environment
(C) does not enable the camel to excrete as much salt as do the kidneys of marine vertebrates
(D) is similar in structure to the kidneys of most mammals living in water-deprived environments
(E) requires the help of other organs in eliminating excess salt


Solution with explanation -

1. To answer this question,look at the passage as a whole since the purpose is reflected in the entire passage.The first paragraph defines homeostasis and names three animals that must maintain internal fluid balance in difficult circumstances.The topic of the second paragraph is how desert rats maintain fluid balance.The third paragraph discusses how camels maintain fluid balance,while the final paragraph describes maintenance of water balance in marine vertebrates。Thus, the overall purpose is to give three examples of how homeostasis is achieved.
(A)Examples of homeostasis are given,but different approaches to studying it are not discussed.
(B)The passage describes examples but it does not summarize studies.
(C)While the passage does discuss two desert animals,it does not present any argument for a particular hypothesis.
(D)Correct.The passage discusses the examples of desert rats,camels,and marine invertebrates to show how these organisms are able to achieve homeostasis.
(E) The passage describes how three organisms maintain water balance,but it presents no theory about it.

The correct answer is D.

2. Inference To answer this question about factual information stated in the passage,read the third paragraph carefully and compare its content to that of each statement.Line 26 says the camels cannot store water, so Statement III is obviously false.Since camels only pant and sweat when they reach temperatures that would kill a human,they must have an ability to tolerate high body temperatures Therefore.Statement II is true.Finally, there is no evidence that camels avoid exposure to conditions that lead to fluid loss.Lines 30-32show that camels suffer high levels of fluid loss. Therefore Statement I is false.The correct answer must include only Statement II,while excluding Statements I and III.
A Statement I is false.
B Correct.Statement II is the only true statement;fines 34.36 show that camels can tolerate high body temperatures.
C Statement II is true.but Statement I is false.
D Statement II is true.but Statement III is false
E Statement II is true.but Statements I and III are false.

The correct answer is B.

3. Inference An inference is drawn from stated information.To answer this question.1ook at the information about sweating and panting lines 17-19 and 30-32. The passage states that desert rats are avoiding loss of fluid through panting or sweating, which are regulatory mechanisms for maintaining internal body temperature by evaporative cooling. These mechanisms reduce internal body temperatures. Additionally, camels conserve internal water (line 36)when they avoid sweating and panting. Therefore, they must lose internal water when they do sweat and pant. Sweating and panting lead to loss of internal water. (A)The passage does not discuss external body temperature;these mechanisms 10wer internal body temperature,and there is no reason to infer external body temperatures might rise.
(B)Correct.Sweating and panting lead to loss of fluid, and avoiding them helps camels conserve internal water.
(C)The passage states that desert rats are able to maintain the osmotic pressure of their blood, as well as their total body-water content(1ines14-16)and does not connect changes in osmotic pressure to temperature-regulating mechanisms such as sweating and panting. While the passage does discuss renal water 1oss.it does not relate this to temperature-regulating mechanisms like sweating and panting.
(E) The passage does not relate body temperature regulators like sweating and panting to changes in the urine's salt content.

The correct answer is B.

4. Inference To answer this question,1ook at the phrase entirely unexceptional in the context of the passage.Desert rats and camels share the problem of conserving water in an environment where water is lacking, temperature is high, and humidity is low (lines 12—13).Desert rats have as part of their coping mechanisms exceptional kidneys that produce urine with a high salt content.The author compares camels‟ kidneys to those of desert rats and shows that the camels have ordinary kidneys that do not help the camels conserve water.
A Since a contrast is drawn between the kidneys of camels and those of desert rats,the two must function differently.
B Correct.The camel's kidney does nothing special to help the camel cope with its difficult environment. C No comparison between the kidneys of camels and the kidneys of marine vertebrates is made.
D There is no information given about the kidney structure of most mammals in desert environments so this conclusion is not justified.
E Marine vertebrates have other organs that help eliminate extra salt;camels do not.

The correct answer is B.

GMAT Preparation Day 4

Quants :-

1. What is the maximum possible area of a quadrilateral with a perimeter of 80
centimeters?

Answer and solution - 400 cm2: The quadrilateral with maximum area for a given perimeter is a square, which has four
equal sides. Therefore, the square that has a perimeter of 80 centimeters has sides of length 20 centimeters
each. Since the area of a square is the side length squared, the area = (20 cm)(20 cm) = 400 cm2

For answer and solution, select all


Verbal :-

Consumer advocate:It is generally true, at least in this state, that lawyers who advertise a specific service charge less for that service than lawyers who do not advertise.It is also true that each time restrictions on the advertising of legal services have been eliminated,the number of lawyers advertising their services has increased and legal costs to consumers have declined in consequence.However, eliminating the state requirement that legal advertisements must specify fees for specific services would almost certainly increase rather than further reduce consumers’ legal costs.Lawyers would no longer have an incentive to lower their fees when they begin advertising and if no longer required to specify fee arrangements,many lawyers who now advertise would Increase their fees. In the consumer advocate's argument,the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(A) The first is a generalization that the consumer advocate accepts as true;the second is presented as a consequence that follows from the truth of that generalization.
 (B) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the consumer advocate argues w川be repeated in the case at issue;the second acknowledges a circumstance in which that pattern would not hold.
 (C) The first is a pattern of cause and effect that the consumer advocate predicts w川not hold in the case at issue;the second offers a consideration in support of that prediction。
 (D) The first is evidence that the consumer advocate offers in support of a certain prediction;the second is that prediction.
(E) The first acknowledges a consideration that weighs against the main position that the consumer advocate defends;the second is that position.

For answer and solution, select all of the below
Answer and solution - C
Argument Construction Situation Lawyers who advertise charge less. In the past, when advertising restrictions have been removed, the number of lawyers advertising rose and legal costs to consumers fell. However, eliminating the requirement to specify fees in advertisements would raise consumers’ legal costs. If lawyers are not required to specify their fees in ads, many lawyers who advertise will raise their fees, and consumer costs are likely to rise.
Reasoning What part do the two sentences in boldface play in the argument? This question asks the reader to look carefully at how the advocate’s argument is constructed and in particular at how the two sentences in boldface are related. It is necessary to understand the consumer advocate’s main point: if lawyers are not required to specify fees in advertisements, consumers’ legal costs are likely to rise. The first boldface sentence shows the cause-and-effect relation of lawyers’ ads and falling consumer costs, a relation the advocate predicts will not continue in the current case. The second boldface sentence explains why that relation will change. 
A The first sentence is presented as true, but the second sentence does not follow as a consequence;rather, it contradicts the first sentence. 
B The first sentence shoes cause and effect,but the consumer advocate does not argue that it will be repeated.The advocate argues that it will not be repeated. 
C Correct.The first sentence shows general cause and effect in a situation that the advocate argues will not be true in this particular case.The second sentence explains why it will not be true. 
D The consumer advocate predicts legal costs will rise;the first sentence does not offer evidence in support of that prediction,but rather evidence that costs have always fallen. 
E The first sentence gives a general cause-and-effect relationship,not a special consideration;the second sentence shows how that relationship could change.

GMAT Preparation Day 3

Quants :-

In warehouse there are some boxes divided in stacks, each has 12.After adding 60 more, each has 14.How many boxes before adding?

1)boxes<110 before adding
2)boxes<120 after adding

Answer : B (Select the row to see the answer)


Verbal :-

High levels of fertilizer and pesticides, needed when farmers try to produce high yields of the same crop year after year, pollute water supplies. Experts therefore urge farmers to diversify their crops and to rotate their plantings yearly. To receive governmental price-support benefits for a crop, farmers must have produced that same crop for the past several years. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following conclusions?

(A) The rules for governmental support of farm prices work against efforts to reduce water pollution.
(B) The only solution to the problem of water pollution from fertilizers and pesticides is to take
farmland out of production.
(C) Farmers can continue to make a profit by rotating diverse crops, thus reducing costs for chemicals, but not by planting the same crop each year.
(D) New farming techniques will be developed to make it possible for farmers to reduce the
application of fertilizers and pesticides.
(E) Governmental price supports for farm products are set at levels that are not high enough to
allow farmers to get out of debt.

Answer : A (Select the row to see the answer)

GMAT Preparation Day 2

Quants :-

Each customer of a networking company subscribes to one of the 2 plans : Plan A or Plan B.Plan A costs $75 per month and Plan B costs $175 per month per customer. If the company's average revenue per customer per month is $100, then what percent of the company's revenue comes from customer with Plan A?

a.) 25%
b.) 30%
c.) 37.5%
d.) 56.25%
e.) 75%

Answer : D (Select the row to see the answer)


Verbal :-

Gortland has long been narrowly self-sufficient in both grain and meat.However, as per capita income in Gortland has risen toward the world average,per capita consumption of meat has also risen toward the world average,and it takes several pounds of grain to produce one pound of meat.Therefore,since per capita income continues to rise,whereas domestic grain production will not increase,Gortland will soon have to import either grain or meat or both. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(A) The total acreage devoted to grain production in Gortland will not decrease substantially
(B) The population of Gortland has remained relatively constant during the country's years of growing prosperity.
(C) The per capita consumption of meat in Gortland is roughly the same across all income levels.
(D) In Gortland,neither meat nor grain is subject to government price controls.
(E) People in Gortland who increase their consumption of meat will not radically decrease their consumption of grain.

Answer : E (Select the row to see the answer)

GMAT preparation Day 1

August 8, 2013

Quants :-

Set P contains points (x,y) on the coordinate plane that are in or on circle O. The values x and y are integers. Circle O is centered at the origin and has a radius of 3. If a point from set P is randomly selected, what is the probability that the point is located on the circumference of circle O?

a.) 4/9
b.) 4/28
c.) 4/29
d.) 4/27
e.) 4/7

Answer :- C (Select the row to see the answer)

Post to request for solution.


Verbal :- 

In A.D.391,resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria, later generations lost all but the Iliad and Odyssey among Greek epics,most of the poetry of Pindar and Sappho,and dozens of plays by Aeschylus and Euripides.

(A) resulting from the destruction of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria,
(B) the destroying of the largest library of the ancient world at Alexandria resulted and
(C) because of the result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria,the largest of theancient world, (D) as a result of the destruction of the library at Alexandria,the largest of the ancient world,
(E) Alexandria's largest library of the ancient world was destroyed,and the result was


Answer :- D   (Select the row to see the answer)

Sentence Correction Guidelines

Sentence Correction Basic Rules

1. There should be a main subject and a main verb, which should agree in plurality.

2. If the main subject is connected by any additive other than “and”, it is still singular.

3. If “either … or”, “neither … or” or “or” are used, then the verb has to agree with the word closest to it. If just “either” or “neither” are used, then they are singular.
a. Either John or his friends are coming for dinner.
b. Neither John’s friends nor John is coming for dinner.

4. Collective nouns are always singular.

5. Indefinite pronouns (“each”, “every”) are usually singular. If SANAM(Some, any, none, all, more/most) pronouns are used:
a. None is singular
b. SANAM <of> means use the plurality of the word after “of”
a. Some of his friends are coming for dinner.

6. “The” number is singular, while “a” number is plural.

7. If the construction goes “one of the“ who/that … use a plural verb. The noun should be followed by who or that for this sentence to hold good. If the sentence just has “one of the” then its most likely singular.

8. List of tenses:
a. Simple present – Permanent situations
b. Simple past – Describe an event that happened at a specific time in the past
c. Simple future – Uses “will” or “be going to” where “will” is voluntary, and “be going to” refers to a plan of action.
d. Present Perfect – Used to denote an event that happened at an unspecified time before the present : [Has/Have] + Present Participle
e. Past Perfect - Used to denote the event that happened in the far past when referring to two things that happened in the past. The near past event is referred to using the simple tense: [Had] + Past Participle
f. Present Perfect Continuous – Used to denote something that started in the past and has continued into the present : [Has/Have] + Been + Present participle
g. Past Perfect Continuous – Denote something that started in the past and continued till some other time in the past : [Had] + Been + Past Participle

9. Between simple and perfect tenses – choose the simple for the nearer event and the perfect for the one that happened before.

10. Between simple and continuous tenses – try to avoid continuous tenses unless the action is ongoing.

11. Has had refers to the present perfect tense and had had refers to the past perfect.

12. If … then construction
a. Present tense --- “will” verb
b. Past tense --- “would” verb
c. Future Tense --- “would have” verb

13. A pronoun should refer back to a specific noun and should agree in number with the noun that it replaces. To check, substitute the noun back into the place of the pronoun and check if it makes sense.

14. When you have “it, its, they, them or their” its most likely a pronoun error.

15. “That” describes an essential clause, while “which” refers to a non-essential clause. “Which” can only be used in the following situations:
a. It follows a comma
b. It describes the word that comes IMMEDIATELY before it.

16. If the answer to the question is I, he or she, then use “who” and if the answer is me, him or her, then use “whom”

17. Try to use “do so” whenever you’re stuck between “do it” and “do so”

18. The modifier should be placed as close to the word it describes as possible. This is especially true of participial phrases or adjectival modifiers.

19. When parallelism is employed in a sentence, all the words must take the same tense, and be in the same form.

20. Correlative conjunctions in parallelism: Same grammatical element
a. Not only … but also
b. No sooner … than
c. Either … or
d. Both … and
e. Neither … nor

21. Compared items must be logically and grammatically similar.

22. Comparative terms are used between two terms and superlative terms are used for more than two terms.

23. “Like” is used to compare nouns and “as” is used for all other comparisons (clauses, and so on).

24. The subjunctive mood represents either a hypothetical situation or a situation where a suggestion or demand is made. In this case the words “were” and “would” are used even if the subject is singular.

25. “Whether” is used to introduce alternatives while “if” only indicates conditional construction.

26. “Like” is used to indicate similarity while “such as” is used for indicating examples.

27. “Compared with” is used to actually compare two things, while “compared to” is used to liken something to something that is usually not comparable to the thing being likened.

28. “Due to” means “caused by”. If the “due to” is replaced with “caused by” and it doesn’t make any sense stick to “because of” or “for”

29. “Less” is used for unquantifiable things, while “fewer” is used for quantifiable things. Similarly “farther” is used for quantifiable things while “further” is used for unquantifiable things.

30. Agree to “verb” and agree with “noun”.

31. Will is future, would is past.

32. “Between” two things and “Among” many things.

33. “Rather than” indicates preference. “Instead” indicates replacement.

34. Two independent clauses should be separated by comma and FANBOYS (For, And, Nor, But, Or, Yet, So) or by a semicolon.

35. In parallel structures, you can have two participles, one ending with –ing and the other ending with –ed. It is still grammatically correct.

36. “This” replaces singular nouns, while “those” replaces plural nouns.

37. “So … that” is right, and “so … as to” is also right.

38. Avoid redundant construction.

39. Avoid passive voice as much as possible.

40. You need the word “that” after any reporting verb.

My first attempt - A shameful 630

Hi
I am not sure if this blog can ever be helpful to anyone, considering that there are so many achievers telling their success stories. But, there is one thing for sure, you will all be able to relate to it.

MY GMAT JOURNEY

It started with a thought to study in USA. I am a working woman and i see my managers committing such faults that i know i wouldn't ever have committed. Also, the idea of going onsite captured my dreams. So basically instead of 1, i had two aims. One to manage a team efficiently and the other to earn money on a foreign land. GMAT seemed to be the best investment.

My first step was to join a coaching institute. I knew i just needed verbal classes as i had already taken quants for CAT exam. Well, the classes helped. But, when i took a mock test for the first time, it was a pathetic score of 570(Kaplan). Shocked and dismayed, i calmed myself down. I took kaplan, manhattan, 800score, gmatprep , but the score wouldn't go beyond 710. Please note that 710 was in one of the 800score tests and we all know how easy they are.

Well, just a week before the test, i got hit by viral. It was like icing on the cake. I couldn't cancel the appointment as it would have cost me 250$. I knew i had to take the test. Anyhow, i managed to.

AWA went fine.. IR.. Man that were tough. The GmatPrep IRs are pitfalls. They are a 100 times tougher than them. Anyways, i took a break after that. Had a perk and glucon D as i was ill and i needed a lot of energy to sit for 4 straight hours. Next was quants. Tough, yet managed to score 49. Verbal seemed easy but turned out to be a disaster. A mere 27. Never before had i scored so low in verbal.

My follies -

1. I had to go slow in verbal. Since the verbal section just seemed easy, i would have done better if i had taken an extra moment per question.
2. Since quants was always a strong point for me, i should have given a lot of time to verbal.
3. New York times has the best editorial. Should have kept an eye on it right from the beginning.